"Crucible" index "Repent and be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins" Acts 2:38 Enquiries 

WHAT IS "CHRISTIC BAPTISM" ?
There is one baptism

There is a novel doctrine called "Christic Baptism", first put around in 1874 by a man named J.W. Dale, which denies that the one baptism in Ephesians 4:3-6 is immersion in water. This doctrine is now becoming very popular in evangelical circles. No doubt you will come across it, even with folk who still practice baptism of believers in water, even though they deny it is the one baptism in Ephesians 4.3-6.

In his work entitled "Christic Baptism" J.W. Dale asserts that the one baptism in Ephesians 4:3-6 is baptism by the Holy Spirit for which he uses the term "Christic baptism" which he calls "real, not ritual water, baptism." He claims that Acts 2:38, Acts 8:12, Romans 6:3-6, Colossians 2:12 refer to what he calls "Christic baptism" which he says is "real baptism by the Holy Spirit" thus implying that baptism in water is not real baptism.

His arguments are lengthy and confusing. Here are a few examples which I think are sufficient to show the error of his reasoning.

His interpretations of Acts 2:38 are contradictory:

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

In his comments on this verse he claims that sins were remitted before baptism:

"Upon repentance each individual was then to be baptised on the basis that the specific individual's sins had been remitted..." (emphasis added)

Then, still commenting on Acts 2:38, he says that remission of sins was a result of baptism:

"This real baptism takes the penitent sinner out of a state of guilt and places him into (eis) a new state of remission." (emphasis added)

Even though here he renders eis as into, elsewhere he tries to argue that in Acts 2:38 the word eis does not mean into, but means "because of," claiming that folk were baptised because they had been forgiven their sins - not for their sins to be forgiven.

He also states that this baptism was "real baptism by the Holy Spirit," by this he is denying that Acts 2:41 refers to the Lord's disciples baptising people in water.

Acts 2:41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

So either way, which does he believe: that remissions of sins is before or after baptism, whether it was his "real baptism by the Holy Spirit," or baptism in real water?

This kind of confused reasoning prevails throughout his book.

Making reference to Colossians 2:12, he reasons that because the relationship established by this baptism "can hardly be symbolised by a momentary dipping in water for the relationship is permanent." However Colossians 2:12 reads:

"Buried with him in baptism, wherein also you are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who has raised him from the dead."

How can anyone be raised out of a permanent situation?

Both Romans 6:4 and Colossians 2:12 show that baptism is not just a burial, but that it is both a burial and a resurrection. This passages clearly show that baptism is a momentary dipping under water. So Colossians 2:12 prove true what he actually denies.

When baptised in water the repentant believer is buried with the Lord for the remission of sins and raised with Him to walk in newness of life.

 "Crucible" index See also: " In Acts 2:38 'For the forgiveness of sins'means 'For the forgiveness of sins' !" and "A GOOD CONSCIENCE's APPEAL"